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Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Tue Dec 20, 2011 11:03 pm

Hello Stephen,
On the point of translating from exegesis alone how do you account for the resurrection event ocurring three days after the crucifixion?

MattithYah 27:62, 63
“But nevertheless, the next day, which is and exists as the day after the Preparation day of Friday, the high and chief priests and the Pharisees were gathered and drawn, collected and assembled, brought and joined together towards and to the advantage of Pilate, saying and teaching, maintaining and affirming, directing and exhorting, advising and pointing out, “Sovereign Lord, we remember, recall and are reminded that concerning this, that certain specific deceiver, impostor and corruptor who led and seduced people to err and make mistakes had said whilst He was still alive and living, ‘After three days, I Am to be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored back to life from death.”
- Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh


Marcus 8:31
“…and to also be killed and eliminated, slayed and put to death, having His soul separated from His body, but to be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored after three days.”
- Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh


Yahuchanon 19:31
“Then and therefore, accordingly, consequently and these things being so, since and seeing as though it was and existed as Friday, so that, in order that and with the result that the bodies and corpses would not remain or abide, endure or live on, last or persist, stay or continue on, dwell or lodge upon the upright pole and stake* in, by and on the day of rest, the Shabbat, for the reason that the day and time period of that certain specific day of rest, that Shabbat, was and existed as great and mighty, powerful and strong, intense and outstanding…”
- Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh



MattithYah 28:1
“And then, at the end of and after the Shabbat, the day of rest, at the dawning and beginning of Day One of Weeks and Shabbats*, Miriam of Migdalah and the other and different Miriam came, arose and appeared to watch and look at, understand and perceive, notice and behold, attentively view and see, ascertain and know, discover and recognise, contemplate and consider the sepulchre and tomb, grave and burial place.”
- Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh

- William
We can contrast these against the places where it also states:
From then on, at that time, Yahushua* began and started to show and give evidence of, exhibit, prove and make known to His disciples and followers, pupils and learners, apprentices and adherents that concerning this, it was necessary and behoved, right and proper, inevitable and binding, fitting and destined, ordained and prescribed, suitable and beneficial for Him to go off and depart, leave and proceed to go into Yarushalaim to experience and undergo, receive and endure many numerous and large amounts of suffering from presbyters and elders, the Sanhedrin*, and by the high and chief priests, and by the clerks and scribes, public servants and teachers of religious law, secretaries and government officials, judges and scholars, and to be destroyed and killed, ruined and annihilated, wasted and slayed, rendered useless and caused to perish and pass away, but then to be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored back to life on the third day.
Then, when they were gathered and assembled, collected, combined and united together in Galiylah, Yahushua* said to them, “The Son* of Man* is about and inevitable to, determined and intended to, certain and expected to, shall and will be given and granted, supplied and furnished, bestowed and delivered, committed and permitted, extended and presented, surrendered, betrayed and handed over into the hands and power, control and custody of men and other human beings, and they will destroy and kill, ruin and annihilate, waste and slay Him, rendering Him useless and causing Him to perish and pass away, but He will be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored back to life on the third day.”
But nevertheless, having strictly rebuked and admonished, rated and chided, reproved and censured, warned, evaluated and charged them, He strictly enjoined and ordered, divided and separated, defined and charged, admonished and commanded them to say and teach, maintain and affirm, direct and exhort, advise and point out this to no one, nobody and nothing, having said, “Concerning this, it is and exists as necessary and behoves, right and proper, inevitable and binding, fitting and destined, ordained and prescribed, suitable and beneficial for the Son of Man* to experience and undergo, receive and endure many numerous and large amounts of suffering, and to be rejected and thrown away, declared useless and regarded as unworthy, disapproved of and repudiated by and from the presbyters and elders, the Sanhedrin*, and by the high and chief priests, and by the clerks and scribes, public servants and teachers of religious law, secretaries and government officials, judges and scholars, and to also be killed and eliminated, slayed and put to death, having His soul separated from His body, but to be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored on the third day.”
Then, after being flogged and lashed, beaten and tormented, scourged and whipped, they shall destroy and kill, ruin and annihilate Him, render Him useless, wasting and slaying Him, causing Him to perish and pass away. But on the third day, He shall be caused to stand upright and firm, steadfast and established, fixed and unmoveable, upheld and sustained, maintained and authorised, being restored back to life.
Concerning this, it is necessary and behoves, right and proper, inevitable and binding, fitting and destined, ordained and prescribed, suitable and beneficial for the Son of Man to be given and granted, supplied and furnished, bestowed and delivered, committed and permitted, extended and presented, surrendered, betrayed and handed over to the hands and power, control and custody of sinful and erroneous men and human beings who have missed the mark and made mistakes, violated the law of the Supreme One and wandered from the Way and from the state of uprightness, and to be crucified, being nailed to an upright pole and stake*, and on the third day, to be caused to stand upright and firm, steadfast and established, fixed and unmoveable, upheld and sustained, maintained and authorised...’
And he said to them, “Concerning this, it has been written and inscribed, recorded and composed in this manner and way, thus and so: the Anointed Messiah* must experience and undergo, receive and endure suffering, and then on the third day be caused to stand upright and firm, steadfast and established, fixed and unmoveable, upheld and sustained, maintained and authorised from out of the dead and lifeless, becoming separate from the inanimate and the realm of the deceased, and enable others to do the same thing...”
“...this certain specific Man God* Himself raised and lifted up, awakened and restored back to life from the dead on the third day, and gave and granted, supplied and furnished, bestowed and delivered, committed and permitted, extended and presented Him the right to come to be and exist, arise, appear and originate as completely visible and radiant, exposed to the eyes and viewable, clearly shining and revealed, exhibited and disclosed, manifested and clearly seen, known and illuminated, recognised and totally apparent...”
and that concerning this, He was buried and entombed, and that concerning this, He was raised and lifted up, awakened and restored back from death on the third day in accordance with and with regards to, in relation to and with respect to the writings of Scripture...
The phrase "to be raised and lifted up, awakened and restored after three days" I think may start from the time when Yahushua is betrayed to the high priests. There's a reason Yahushua only states this when he has also mentioned his betrayal to the Sanhedrin. I also find it curious as to why Lucus never has the phrase "after three days" with regards to the resurrection in either of his books. As Lucus is a Greek writer and he doesn't use this phrase, we can conclude that the phrase "after three days" is a Hebraism of sorts.

I should also note the continuation of the Pharisees question to Pilate in MattithYah 27:63:
Then and therefore, accordingly, consequently and these things being so, command and direct, urge and bid, exhort and order that the sepulchre and tomb, grave and burial place is to be made safe and secured, guarded and watched over up until the third day...
If "after three days" was indicating three full days of 24 hour periods, why don't the Pharisees ask Pilate to keep guards watching over the tomb until the fourth day, when the third day after the Messiah's death would've been completely ended?

We can also see how "after three days" even including day and night, isn't three full days or night when we look to the book of Esther:
Then Esther told them to reply to Mordecai, “Go, gather all the Yahuwdeans to be found in Susa, and hold a fast on my behalf, and do not eat or drink for three days, night or day. I and my young women will also fast as you do. Then I will go to the king, though it is against the law, and if I perish, I perish.” Mordecai then went away and did everything as Esther had ordered him. On the third day Esther put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the king’s palace, in front of the king’s quarters, while the king was sitting on his royal throne inside the throne room opposite the entrance to the palace.
As you can see, "do not eat or drink for three days, night or day" doesn't equal three full nights and three full days, because "on the third day", Esther goes to see the king. It wasn't the fourth day which one would expect if the Yahuwdeans were fasting for three full days and nights.

I should also point out that never does anyone record Yahushua stating that He would rise "after the third day" (Greek μετα τη τριτη ημερα) or "three days later" (Greek τρεις ημεραι μετεπειτα).

In conclusion: I see no reason at all to doubt the crucifixion happening on a Friday, and then the Messiah being resurrected on Day one of Shabbats/Sunday/On the third day.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Wed Dec 21, 2011 6:25 am

Hello Stephen,
When are you suggesting that the women prepared the burial spices? E.g.; (1) after a Sabbath, (2) between two separate Sabbaths, (3) on a Sabbath, (4) before a Sabbath?

Marcus 16:1
“Then, when the day of rest, the Shabbat had passed, elapsed and was over, Miriam of Migdalah, and Miriam the mother of Ya’qob; and Shalowme, bought and purchased spices, aromatic oils and perfumed salves so that and in order that having come…”
– Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh

Lucus 23:54
“Moreover, the women had closely and earnestly followed behind and after them, those who were and existed as the ones who had come together and accompanied, journeyed and travelled together with Him from out of Galiylah; they watched and looked at, saw and paid attention to the sepulchre and tomb, grave and burial place, and how and in which way His mortal body and corpse was set down and placed, laid and established, appointed and ordained, fixed and put, designated and assigned. And continuing on, after they had turned back and had returned, they prepared and arranged, provided and made some spices, aromatic oils and perfumed salves, and perfume ointment ready. And indeed, truly and surely, as it was the Shabbat, they rested and ceased from business labour in accordance with and with regards to...”
– Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh

- William

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Wed Dec 21, 2011 10:03 am

Actually, I think you've found a translational error in my rendition of Marcus 16:1. as the Greek verb for "to buy" (αγοραζω) is in the aorist tense, I should have the word "had" before "bought", indicating that they had already purchased spices/oils/ointment previously. The fact that only a couple of days before, Yahushua had had perfume poured over him indicates that the women would've had easy access to previously purchased spices/oils/ointment.

Thanks for pointing that out. As Lucus has them preparing the spices sometime after Yahushua had been placed in His tomb and before the Sabbath had started, this is therefore the answer to the question: they prepared the spices/oils/ointments before the Sabbath. How long it takes to prepare spices/oils/ointments I don't know however :)
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Wed Dec 21, 2011 4:58 pm

Hello Stephen,
Yet it appears here that the women were in bereavement, and were reluctant to leave the tomb.

MattithYah 27:61

“…and outstanding stone and piece of rock up against the entrance and passage way of the sepulchre and tomb, grave and burial place, he went off and departed, left and proceeded to go away. Moreover, there, in that place, was and existed Miriam of Migdalah, and the other and different Miriam, sitting down and dwelling, staying, residing and sojourning before, opposite to and in front of the sepulchre and tomb, grave and burial place.”
- Quoted from Version 1 / The Way to Yahuweh

- William

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Wed Dec 21, 2011 5:06 pm

That isn't the impression indicated by the translation of the Greek καθημαι, nor is it indicating bereavement on the part of the women, whom, as Luke says, went away from the tomb to prepare their previously bought spices.

What MattithYah is indicating is that the women were sitting down, watching as Yahuwseph of Ramathaim had Yahushua placed in the tomb, and then had the stone rolled in front of it. Just because MattithYah doesn't specifically state that the women went away, doesn't mean that they stayed until the end of the Sabbath. I don't see where you're getting that they were "reluctant" to leave the tomb.

I actually need to improve the word order there as well.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Thu Dec 22, 2011 6:50 am

Hello Stephen,
The main point regarding the time duration within the Passion event was prophesised by Yahushua - Himself as comparable to the sign of Jonah in MattithYah 12:39, 40. There it is stated twice in the majority of texts that the time duration in the tomb would be equivalent to 3 days and 3 nights. In Aramaic it should read 3 nights and 3 days. Jews reckoned their days from sunset to sunset. Night time came first and was divided into 4 equal watches (MTH 14:25) and daytime followed later with a total of 12 hours (JHN 11:9). Three nights and Three days from the sealing of the tomb should have been about a 72 hour duration of time in modern reckoning. The first day was completed after a 24 hour period from the sealing of the tomb, the second day being completed after 48 hour period, and the third day after 72 hours. Thus ‘on the third day’ being inclusive to ‘3 nights & 3 days’ or 72 hours from the time the tomb was sealed.
However, a Friday burial to a Sunday morning open tomb in my opinion would have been around 40 hours only. Subsequently, many believe instead that the crucifixion occurred on a Thursday with a Sunday resurrection. Others believe that the resurrection occurred on a Wednesday with a Saturday (Sabbath) resurrection. There are no actual weekday names given in the Passion passages of the original texts. The traditionalists state in the King James Authorised 1611 that the resurrection occurred on the ‘first day of the week’ but the word ‘day’ is deliberately italicized by the Translators because the word ‘day’ does not literally exist anywhere in any of the original texts.
In my opinion the phrase 'the first of the week' is worthy of grammatical scrutiny.

- William

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Thu Dec 22, 2011 1:50 pm

The main point regarding the time duration within the Passion event was prophesised by Yahushua - Himself as comparable to the sign of Jonah in MattithYah 12:39, 40. There it is stated twice in the majority of texts that the time duration in the tomb would be equivalent to 3 days and 3 nights.
I don't see a mention of "tomb" in MattithYah 12:39-40.
In Aramaic it should read 3 nights and 3 days. Jews reckoned their days from sunset to sunset. Night time came first and was divided into 4 equal watches (MTH 14:25) and daytime followed later with a total of 12 hours (JHN 11:9). Three nights and Three days from the sealing of the tomb should have been about a 72 hour duration of time in modern reckoning. The first day was completed after a 24 hour period from the sealing of the tomb, the second day being completed after 48 hour period, and the third day after 72 hours. Thus ‘on the third day’ being inclusive to ‘3 nights & 3 days’ or 72 hours from the time the tomb was sealed.
Again, Yahushua doesn't say that he'll be "sealed in a tomb" for three days and three nights, but the Greek literally says: "...in this manner (houtos) shall exist (eimi) the (ho) Son (huios) of (ho) Man (anthropos) in (en) the (ho) heart (kardia) of the (ho) region (ge)..."

The final word is usually translated as "earth", but its first and foremost meaning is "land" or "region, country, territory", in close connection with the Hebrew word ארץ/'erets, which also has the same range of meaning. Both γη/ge and ארץ/'erets are mainly used in the Tanakh in the sentence "the land (ο γη/הארץ) of Yisra'el". Even the basic Strong's Concordance has "land" as the primary meaning of ארץ, and states that the KJV has it translated this way 1,543 times, more than any other word used to translate it with.

There is absolutely no evidence, either before or contemporary to the Messiah's words in MattithYah 12:39-40, that shows that "the heart of the γη" meant "dead" or "in a tomb" or "underground." There are more than a few words, both Greek and Hebrew, that can be used to designate that, and I know of no one in the first century CE who thought that the Messiah was dead for 72 hours. That is more an eisegetical reading based on an English translation, usually made by those whom don't know Greek or Hebrew.

And as mentioned previously "on the third day" doesn't mean "after the third day has passed"; it does literally mean on the third day, that is, during. If the Messiah had meant to say he'd be dead for three days and then be resurrected, we'd see "the fourth day" mentioned, not the third.

Essentially, the "three days and nights" that the Messiah spent "in the heart of the land" is a reference to Yarushalaim/Jerusalem, where we know He only spent three consecutive nights and days from the Thursday when He was betrayed, to when He was resurrected on the Sunday (Thursday night + Friday day, Friday night + Saturday day, Saturday night + Sunday day). Previously to this during the rest of the week, the eyewitnesses have him leaving Yarushalaim Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday evenings, then coming back on the Thursday afternoon ready for the Passover feast on Thursday night.
Subsequently, many believe instead that the crucifixion occurred on a Thursday with a Sunday resurrection. Others believe that the resurrection occurred on a Wednesday with a Saturday (Sabbath) resurrection.
Again, usually based on the faulty presumption that "εν ο καρδια ο γη" (although exactly written as εν καρδια της γης in MattithYah 12:40) meant "being dead and underground in a tomb"
There are no actual weekday names given in the Passion passages of the original texts.
Actually, there are weekday names given in the Passion passages. The word that nearly every single English translation only translates as "preparation" is the Greek παρασκευη/paraskeue, and it was only ever used to indicate Friday, that is, the day before the Sabbath where they'd "prepare" everything ready for it. παρασκευη is never used to indicate the day before a feast or a festival, only ever to refer to the day directly preceding the Sabbath. So all three eyewitness accounts state that the crucifixion happened on the παρασκευη - Friday.

Even in the Modern Greek of today, the Greeks refer to Friday as παρασκευη.
The traditionalists state in the King James Authorised 1611 that the resurrection occurred on the ‘first day of the week’ but the word ‘day’ is deliberately italicized by the Translators because the word ‘day’ does not literally exist anywhere in any of the original texts. In my opinion the phrase 'the first of the week' is worthy of grammatical scrutiny.
Agreed that the Greek ημερα doesn't appear in the actual Greek text. However, as I pointed out in my blog post on this subject (here), the Greek ημερα can be ellipted, but implied by the context and needed to be included in an English translation (hence why "the" is stuck before "preparation" in John 19:14 in English translations, despite the fact that there is no definite article before παρασκευη). At least the KJV put the word in italics - most English translations today don't even bother.

What I do contend with is their translation of σαββατων/sabbaton as "week". The Greek word for "week" is εβδομαδος/ebdomados, so if they had wanted to say "the first day of the week" they could quite easily have done so.

As I pointed out in the blog, the force of τη μια των σαββατων/te mia ton sabbaton isn't the fact that it was a Sunday, but that it was "One of Sabbaths", essentially the first day that led up to the feast of Sabbaths/Weeks/Pentecost 50 days later, also referred to as the "feast of Firstfruits" (a feast oddly not called this anywhere in the NT). So whilst I'm absolutely certain that it was a Sunday by our reckoning when Yahushua was resurrected, the point is that it was the feast of Firstfruits/One of Sabbaths when He rose again, which falls on a Sunday every year.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Fri Dec 23, 2011 9:32 am

Hello Stephen,
“Actually, there are weekday names given in the Passion passages. The word that nearly every single English translation only translates as "preparation" is the Greek παρασκευη/paraskeue, and it was only ever used to indicate Friday, that is, the day before the Sabbath where they'd "prepare" everything ready for it. παρασκευη is never used to indicate the day before a feast or a festival, only ever to refer to the day directly preceding the Sabbath. So all three eyewitness accounts state that the crucifixion happened on the παρασκευη - Friday.”
Please observe these quotes in the KJV;

Leviticus 23:39 Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast (of Tabernacles) unto the LORD seven days (Tishri 15-21): on the first day (Tishri 15) shall be a sabbath, and on the eighth (Tishri 22) day shall be a sabbath.

John 7:2 Now the Jews' feast of tabernacles was at hand.

John 7:37 In the last day, that great day of the (Tabernacle) feast, Jesus stood and cried, saying, If any man thirst, let him come unto me, and drink.

John 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, for that sabbath day was an high day, besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

*Any day before (1) a high-great-annual sabbath (Holy Convocation) on any week day (2) or before a weekly sabbath > was regarded by Jews as a preparation day. Thus Jesus died on a Passover preparation day before the next day shown as a great ‘μεγάλη’ sabbath as stated in John 19:31 (YLT). Compare also to John 7:37 (YLT) describing ‘μεγάλη’ as a ‘great’ occasion in the ‘last day’ of the feast of Tabernacles also being stated as a Sabbath in Leviticus 23:39. Likewise the ‘μεγάλη-high-great-annual sabbath’ (Holy Convocation) stated in St. John 19:31 could have been the last day of the Passover feast.
The Hebrew sacred calendar year was comprised of 7 annual (high days) sabbaths (See LEV Ch.23). These special Sabbaths were on the Feasts of; Passover in the first month of Nisan 15th and the 21st : Pentecost on the third month of Sivan 6th :Trumpets on the seventh month of Tishri 1st : the Day of Atonement on the seventh month of Tishri 10th : Tabernacles on the seventh month of Tishri 15th and the 22nd. The appointment of these ‘High Sabbaths’ (Holy Convocation Days) were appointed by the Sanhedrin Council who formerly observed lunar cycles prior to the fall of Jerusalem in AD~70. As a result, these high annual sabbath days fell on different weekdays year after year. The preparation days prior to these annual Sabbaths fell on different week days as well.
The Passover period lasted for 8 days;
Luke 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread (Nisan 15-21/LEV 23:6) drew nigh, which is (also) called the Passover. (KJV)
Thus, it is probable that Yahushua died on a (Wednesday) preparation day prior to the last day (Thursday-Nisan 21st) of the Passover feast and resurrected on 'mia twn sabbatwn' as one of the weekly Sabbaths between Passover to Pentecost (LEV 23:15).

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Fri Dec 23, 2011 1:43 pm

Please observe these quotes in the KJV;
When it comes to interpreting something, it is never good to go off just an English translation. We have to look at the underlying Hebrew and Greek.
Leviticus 23:39 Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast (of Tabernacles) unto the LORD seven days (Tishri 15-21): on the first day (Tishri 15) shall be a sabbath, and on the eighth (Tishri 22) day shall be a sabbath.
There is a difference between a sabbath, and the Sabbath. Keep this in mind following on from this.
*Any day before (1) a high-great-annual sabbath (Holy Convocation) on any week day (2) or before a weekly sabbath > was regarded by Jews as a preparation day.
And your evidence for this is where? There is absolutely no mention of a "preparation day" for any of the feasts in the Tanakh or the NT. παρασκευη is only ever used in front of the Sabbath, never just a sabbath. παρασκευη is the word they used to describe the sixth day of the week, and there is no evidence anywhere that has them using παρασκευη in any other context. Even modern Greek, as I've already mentioned, has been completely influenced by the Jews' Greek usage, with παρασκευη also being the modern Greek word that means "Friday".
Thus Jesus died on a Passover preparation day before the next day shown as a great ‘μεγάλη’ sabbath as stated in John 19:31 (YLT).
It actually calls it "Great the day of that the Sabbath" (μεγας ο ημερα εκεινος ο σαββατον) which means that it was the Sabbath, and not just "a great sabbath".
Compare also to John 7:37 (YLT) describing ‘μεγάλη’ as a ‘great’ occasion in the ‘last day’ of the feast of Tabernacles also being stated as a Sabbath in Leviticus 23:39.
I have compared John 19:31 to 7:37, but John doesn't call the last day of the feast of Tabernacles "Great the day of that the Sabbath" but "the last great day of the festival". Just because both verses use μεγας, doesn't mean they're referring to the same thing.

Also, John never calls the last day of the feast of Tabernacles "the Sabbath". So trying to equate John 7:37 to 19:31 is incorrect.

And actually, Leviticus 23:39 doesn't call the first and last days of the feast of Tabernacles "a sabbath" (in Hebrew: שבת) but "a shabbathown" (שבתון), which whilst being "days of rest", isn't equal to the day of rest/the Sabbath.
Likewise the ‘μεγάλη-high-great-annual sabbath’ (Holy Convocation) stated in St. John 19:31 could have been the last day of the Passover feast.
The Hebrew sacred calendar year was comprised of 7 annual (high days) sabbaths (See LEV Ch.23). These special Sabbaths were on the Feasts of; Passover in the first month of Nisan 15th and the 21st : Pentecost on the third month of Sivan 6th :Trumpets on the seventh month of Tishri 1st : the Day of Atonement on the seventh month of Tishri 10th : Tabernacles on the seventh month of Tishri 15th and the 22nd. The appointment of these ‘High Sabbaths’ (Holy Convocation Days) were appointed by the Sanhedrin Council who formerly observed lunar cycles prior to the fall of Jerusalem in AD~70. As a result, these high annual sabbath days fell on different weekdays year after year. The preparation days prior to these annual Sabbaths fell on different week days as well.
Leviticus 23 doesn't call the first and last days of unleavened bread "sabbath" days, but instead says "you shall not do any ordinary work". That is wholly different to referring to them as sabbath days. Nor does it call the day of pentecost a "sabbath". This is also true of Trumpets. The only time it uses "sabbath" to refer to any of the feast days, is the day of atonement.

And again, there is no evidence that παρασκευη was used to refer to any preparation day before a feast day. It is only used to indicate Friday. So when John says "since παρασκευη it was" (19:31), we should actually just translate it as "since it was Friday".
The Passover period lasted for 8 days;
Luke 22:1 Now the feast of unleavened bread (Nisan 15-21/LEV 23:6) drew nigh, which is (also) called the Passover. (KJV)
Thus, it is probable that Yahushua died on a (Wednesday) preparation day prior to the last day (Thursday-Nisan 21st) of the Passover feast and resurrected on 'mia twn sabbatwn' as one of the weekly Sabbaths between Passover to Pentecost (LEV 23:15).
Again, the evidence is against your interpretation of the events. παρασκευη is never used to refer to just any day during the week; the first and last days of Unleavened Bread/Passover are not called "sabbath" days; and "mia ton sabbaton" is used to refer to the first day of the 50 days leading up to Pentecost. Therefore the Messiah died on the Passover day, which was παρασκευη/Friday as all eyewitness accounts declare; before the day had ended, He was taken down and put in a newly cut tomb, and this was done quickly because the Sabbath Day was drawing near; then on "One of Sabbaths", the Messiah was resurrected.

All this fell very neatly on three consecutive days, which also happened to coincide with the first three feasts mentioned in Leviticus: Passover (Friday), the first day of unleavened bread (Saturday), and Firstfruits (Sunday). As pointed out in a follow up blog, Firstfruits always happened the day after the first actual "Sabbath day" during the week of Unleavened bread. As the first day of Unleavened bread (that is without sticking the Passover on as the first day) fell on an actual Sabbath day, as there would be no more actual Sabbath days during the week, firstfruits came straight after.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Fri Dec 23, 2011 4:58 pm

Hello Stephen,

Under the context that you explain it I have difficulty reasoning a logic behind the resurrection phrase where amplified as ‘Day One of Weeks and Shabbats’ - used to refer to the first day of the 50 days leading up to Pentecost.
As discussed previously the word ημερα as day and the word εβδομαδος as week in the Koine Greek do not exist anywhere in the resurrection passages of the original texts. The phrase emphasised there is ‘one of sabbaths’ from ‘μίαν σαββάτων’ transliterated as ‘mian sabbatwn’ or ‘μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων’ transliterated as ‘mia twn sabbatwn’. This gramatically being a partitive genitive case function where one sabbath is identified in association to a wholative group of sabbaths. Leviticus 23:15 states the observance of seven (weekly) sabbaths between the Passover sheaf offering leading up to Pentecost. Thus the resurrection occurred reasonably on one of those seven weekly sabbaths. Thus being defined from the literal wording in the resurrection passages and not in the expounded nor the traditional ‘first day of the week’ where unoriginal foreign non-existent words have been supplemented to aid hypothesis' based on shear logic.

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Fri Dec 23, 2011 5:54 pm

Hello Stephen,

Under the context that you explain it I have difficulty reasoning a logic behind the resurrection phrase where amplified as ‘Day One of Weeks and Shabbats’ - used to refer to the first day of the 50 days leading up to Pentecost.
As discussed previously the word ημερα as day and the word εβδομαδος as week in the Koine Greek do not exist anywhere in the resurrection passages of the original texts. The phrase emphasised there is ‘one of sabbaths’ from ‘μίαν σαββάτων’ transliterated as ‘mian sabbatwn’ or ‘μιᾷ τῶν σαββάτων’ transliterated as ‘mia twn sabbatwn’. This gramatically being a partitive genitive case function where one sabbath is identified in association to a wholative group of sabbaths. Leviticus 23:15 states the observance of seven (weekly) sabbaths between the Passover sheaf offering leading up to Pentecost. Thus the resurrection occurred reasonably on one of those seven weekly sabbaths. Thus being defined from the literal wording in the resurrection passages and not in the expounded nor the traditional ‘first day of the week’ where unoriginal foreign non-existent words have been supplemented to aid hypothesis' based on shear logic.

- William
The resurrection happening on the Sabbath day does not fit the evidence, especially as Mark says "the Sabbath had passed" (16:1). It also doesn't bode well with the fact that the Feast of Firstfruits is a prophecy regarding the Messiah's Resurrection. As Firstfruits always happened after the Sabbath day that fell in the week of Unleavened Bread, for the resurrection to happen on any other day than Firstfruits is inconsequential.

All the eyewitness accounts state that the Messiah died on a Friday - παρασκευη. This is based on both evidence and logic. Then all eyewitness accounts state that the Sabbath day was straight after παρασκευη. And then straight after the Sabbath day, all the eyewitness accounts state either one or more women went to the tomb on "One of Sabbaths", be that for μιαν σαββατων or τη μια των σαββατων. This is also "on the third day", and the Messiah had already been resurrected. There is absolutely no mention of any more days passing by. Mark also says that the day the Messiah died was προσαββατον (Mark 15:42), which means "before the Sabbath".

Further to this, in John 19:31, he states, "Then the Jewish authorities, since it was Friday (παρασκευη), so that the bodies may not stay upon the stake on (εν) the (τω) Sabbath (Σαββατω)..." showing that again, the Messiah died on the day before the Sabbath, and not just a sabbath.

If they had wanted to state that the women went to the tomb on an actual Sabbath day exactly two days later, there is no reason why they couldn't've done so. In fact, the Greek would look like this: και δυο ημεραι μετεπειτε, εν τω Σαββατω...

Not only this, if you try to force the "three days and three nights" to mean that the Messiah was dead for exactly 72 hours, then I'm afraid a Wednesday crucifixion and Sabbath resurrection doesn't fit either. 72 hours exactly from his death would be midday on the Saturday day, but all eyewitness accounts state that the women went to the tomb very, very early on μιαν σαββατων/τη μια των σαββατων, and the Messiah had already been resurrected.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Sat Dec 24, 2011 3:46 pm

Hello Stephen,

The full sentence of Matthew 28:1 would render like;
“Late (οψε) more-over (δε) sabbaths (σαββατων) to the (τη) twilighting-up (επιφωσκουση) into (εις) one of (μιαν) sabbaths (σαββατων) Mary (μαρια) Magdalene (μαγδαληνη) and (και ) the (η) other (αλλη) Mary (μαρια) observed (θεωρησαι) the (τον) sepulchre (ταφον).”
Hence, Matthew 28:1 may be describing details in meaning like ; ‘Late (adverb) (post-after-end) (genitive of seperation) more-over (the annual Passover) sabbaths (plural) as it was lighting up (twi-lighting) on one (a cardinal number) of the (a partitive-genitive case function) sabbaths (plural)…… ‘. A description that may pertain to a time interval when the Passover period was finished and had already completed e.g. End (opse-adverbial) the 2 High sabbaths (Nisan 15 & 21 i.e. EX 12:16) of the Passover period onto a weekly sabbath as one sabbath partaken from a group of seven sabbaths within the 50 day counted duration between Passover (from the sheaf offering LEV 23:11,15,16) leading up to Pentecost.
Furthermore…
Mark 16: 1 When the (high-annual) sabbath (sabbatou) (Thursday Nisan 21st) passed…
Mark 16:2 And very early in the morning on one (mia-cardinal) (the Nisan 23rd sabbath) of the (partitive- genitive) sabbaths (sabbatwn) (LEV 23:15) Mary the Magdalene…

Various woman showed as time lapsed through the course of the day. It was Mary Magdalene and Peter near the end of that Sabbath who found the open tomb. The word επιφωσκουση transliterated as epiphoskouse in MTH 28:1 is similar in root meaning to the word επεφωcκεη transliterated as epephosken in LUK 23:54 depicting a late time (twilight) when the sun was settling over the earth’s horizon.

1 Corinthians 15:23 specifically describes our Messiah’s (resurrection) as a firstfruit απαρxη
transliterated as aparchE which is singular in meaning and not here as a firstfruits commonly translated as plural.

Our Lord stated a time duration of “three days and three nights in the earth”. A hole in the earth covered over by a large stone depicts that meaning.

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Sat Dec 24, 2011 4:54 pm

Hello Stephen,

The full sentence of Matthew 28:1 would render like;
“Late (οψε) more-over (δε) sabbaths (σαββατων) to the (τη) twilighting-up (επιφωσκουση) into (εις) one of (μιαν) sabbaths (σαββατων) Mary (μαρια) Magdalene (μαγδαληνη) and (και ) the (η) other (αλλη) Mary (μαρια) observed (θεωρησαι) the (τον) sepulchre (ταφον).”
Hence, Matthew 28:1 may be describing details in meaning like ; ‘Late (adverb) (post-after-end) (genitive of seperation) more-over (the annual Passover) sabbaths (plural) as it was lighting up (twi-lighting) on one (a cardinal number) of the (a partitive-genitive case function) sabbaths (plural)…… ‘.

...The word επιφωσκουση transliterated as epiphoskouse in MTH 28:1 is similar in root meaning to the word επεφωcκεη transliterated as epephosken in LUK 23:54 depicting a late time (twilight) when the sun was settling over the earth’s horizon.
I'm not quite sure how you're understanding these Greek words being used. The Greek δε is a conjunction that can be either adversative (however, nevertheless, but) or continuative (and, so, therefore, accordingly, continuing on), and the words you've mentioned in Matt 28:1 and Luke 23:54 aren't from similar roots, but from the exact same root επιφωσκω meaning "to light upon". However, in Matt 28:1 there is the definite article preceding επιφωσκω which gives it the different meaning of "on/in the lighting upon", which essentially means "as it was beginning to dawn". And the Greek preposition εις (pronounced "eis/ees/ice") means "into" not "on", which is between επιφωσκω and the cardinal number μια/εις (εις here is pronounced "heis/hees/hice").

So Matthew says "on the (ο/τη) lighting upon (επιφωσκω/επιφωσκουση) into (εις) One (εις/μιαν) of Sabbaths (σαββατον/σαββατων)" which means that the women went to the tomb when it was starting to get light on μιαν σαββατων. And there is no definite article in Matt 28:1 between εις and σαββατον.
A description that may pertain to a time interval when the Passover period was finished and had already completed e.g. End (opse-adverbial) the 2 High sabbaths (Nisan 15 & 21 i.e. EX 12:16) of the Passover period onto a weekly sabbath as one sabbath partaken from a group of seven sabbaths within the 50 day counted duration between Passover (from the sheaf offering LEV 23:11,15,16) leading up to Pentecost.
As I pointed out in the posts above, there are no "High Sabbaths" in the Festival of Unleavened bread. The Tanakh never calls them "sabbath", never mind "high sabbaths". This is the major flaw in the argument of those who try to change the crucifixion day from Friday to another day during the week. As I've mentioned numerous times, παρασκευη is Greek for Friday, which all eyewitness accounts agree that that is the day the Messiah was crucified. There is no getting around this.

Also, as Pentecost in Hebrew is called "the Feast of Weeks", as we know this is based on the fact that Leviticus 23 asks them to count 7 full seventh-day Sabbaths, starting from the Feast of Firstfruits, to the day after the seventh Sabbath, when Pentecost happens. Deuteronomy 16:9 however tells them to count seven weeks (sheba' shabuwa'/שבע שבוע), not 7 Sabbath days. However, the easiest way to count seven weeks is to count seven Sabbaths, hence why the plural "Sabbaths" actually indicates the Feast of Weeks/Seven Sabbaths. This is why I translate μιαν σαββατων and τη μια των σαββατων as "day one of Weeks and Sabbaths". If they had wanted to say it was the first Sabbath in this seven week Sabbath cycle, the Greek would be επι τον πρωτον σαββατον/"upon the first Sabbath"
Furthermore…
Mark 16: 1 When the (high-annual) sabbath (sabbatou) (Thursday Nisan 21st) passed…
Again, as pointed out, the crucifixion on the Passover day was on a Friday - παρασκευη. The Passover day is not a Sabbath day. The first day of Unleavened bread is not a Sabbath day. There are no "high annual" sabbath days. Mark specifically says that the Sabbath had passed/διαγινομαι/elapsed, come to an end, finished, passed by. Mark could not be any clearer in his statement to indicate that it was the Sabbath that had passed.

And the day that had passed was 'Abiyb/Nisan 15th, not the 21st.
Various woman showed as time lapsed through the course of the day. It was Mary Magdalene and Peter near the end of that Sabbath who found the open tomb.
As both John (20:1) and Mark (16:2) say that Mary Magdalene came "in the morning"(πρωι/proi) of "One of Sabbaths", how does this then mean "end of that Sabbath"? Especially as πρωι/proi indicates a time between 3 am and 6 am during a day. To come at πρωι/proi would indicate that they either come on the Sabbath, or on the day after. And as Mark says that the seventh-day Sabbath had passed (and Matt, Luke, and John say that the day after the crucifixion was the Sabbath also), this negates it being the seventh-day Sabbath that they went to the tomb on.
1 Corinthians 15:23 specifically describes our Messiah’s (resurrection) as a firstfruit απαρxη transliterated as aparchE which is singular in meaning and not here as a firstfruits commonly translated as plural.
This comes from a misunderstanding of the Greek απαρχη, which is never put into the plural despite it indicating "firstfruits". A perfect example of this is seen in Revelation 14:4, where it states "These have been redeemed from mankind (ανθρωπων/men - plural) as firstfruits (απαρχη - singular) for God and the Lamb".

Also, the Greek Septuagint translation of Leviticus 23:10, where it is translated as "you shall bring the sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest to the priest" from the Hebrew, it has απαρχην/aparchen here, which is the accusative, singular form of the root απαρχη.

Not only this, but the Hebrew of Leviticus 23:10 also just uses ראשית/re'shiyth/firstfruits in the singular also. Just because it looks like its a plural in English, doesn't mean the underlying Greek and Hebrew is plural as well.

All the feasts in Leviticus 23 are prophetic. Passover prophesied the Messiah's crucifixion; Unleavened Bread prophesied what would happen to Him whilst He was dead; Firstfruits prophesied His resurrection; Pentecost/Weeks/Sabbaths prophesied the outpouring of the Spirit; and the final three feasts are prophesies of things that have yet to happen. For the fulfilment of these prophetic feasts to happen on days that they shouldn't happen on, well, would mean everything we do is meaningless, because God wouldn't exist.
Our Lord stated a time duration of “three days and three nights in the earth”. A hole in the earth covered over by a large stone depicts that meaning.
I've already explained this above. There is absolutely no evidence that the Messiah meant He'd be dead and in a tomb for three days and three nights, as the time duration doesn't fit, especially for a Wednesday crucifixion.


I'm not a traditionalist. I do not care at all about Christian tradition or Christian theology. If there was a shred of evidence against a Friday crucifixion and a Sunday resurrection, I would not argue against it. However, the evidence on behalf of a Friday crucifixion and a Sunday resurrection is overwhelming. But this does not in any way justify what Christians have turned Sunday into. Notwithstanding, just because the Christians stole the first day of the week and turned it into a non-Scriptural "Sabbath" does not therefore mean that Sunday is an evil day.

As Yahuweh did indeed instigate seven days in a week, the first day of the week belongs to Him also, and if He wants to have the feast of Firstfruits and Pentecost on the first day of the week, then that's for Him to decide. Accordingly, I will not state that the Messiah's resurrection was on a day that it wasn't. The fact that the resurrection happened on a Sunday is inconsequential - the point was that it happened on the Feast of Firstfruits, which according to Yahuweh's calendar, always falls on a Sunday. And that really is the purpose of it all :)
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Sat Dec 24, 2011 11:32 pm

Hello Stephen,
Regarding the observation of Firstfruits in relation to the seven sabbaths following;

Leviticus 23:11
“And he shall wave the sheaf before the Lord, to be accepted for you: on the next day (Nisan 16th) after the sabbath (Nisan 15th) the priest shall wave it.” KJV
Leviticus 23:15 “And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven sabbaths shall be complete:” KJV
Leviticus 23:16
“Even unto the morrow after the seventh sabbath shall ye number fifty days; and ye shall offer a new meal offering unto the Lord.” KJV

A clear account by Historian Flavius Josephus (AD~70) describes when the omer count (i.e. LEV 23:11) commenced in his book ‘The Antiquities of the Jews’ book 3 chapter 10 paragraph 5 line 250 follows; “But on the second day of unleavened bread, which is the sixteenth day of the month (Nisan), they partake of the fruits of the earth, for before that day they do not touch them.” William Whiston -1998 Thomas Nelson Publishers.
* Philo Judaeus (20 BC – AD 50) a Hellenistic Jewish philosopher is quoted; ” There is also a festival on the day of the pascal feast, which succeeds the first day, and this is named the sheaf, from what takes place on it, for the sheaf is brought to the alter as a first fruit…”
‘THE WORKS OF PHILO JUDAEUS’ by C.D. YONGE, Vol. III LONDON 1855
* The Greek Septuagint (LXX) Old Testament (~270 BC) clarifies when the Passover sheaf offering was offered in Leviticus 23: 11 ; [Quote]
“and he (the priest) shall lift up the sheaf before the Lord, to be accepted for you. On the morrow (Nisan 16) of the first day (Nisan 15) the priest shall lift it up.” [End Quote] Sir Charles Lee Brenton Lancelot.
Published by Samuel Bagster & Sons, Ltd. London 1851.
* Note – The practice of the ‘sheaf offering’ dedication was observed regardless of whatever weekday the 16th of Nisan fell upon for each particular year. Thus being the observation by Jews from the earliest days up through the middle ages right into modern times.
* To support this chronological arrangement overall, a widely overlooked verse at St. Luke 6:1 strongly underlies a principle that Jews were in recognition of a series of Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost thus reading;
“And it came to pass on the second Sabbath after the first, that he went through the cornfields and his disciples plucked the ears of corn and did eat rubbing them in their hands.” KJV.
* This verse has created much debate amongst bible commentators as to what the ‘second Sabbath after the first’ could mean. In ‘Adam Clarke’s Bible Commentary’ we receive an analysis from him and some other various Commentators giving their explanations for the meaning behind the Luke 6:1 passage; [Quotes Begin]
“The Vulgar Latin renders δευτεροπρωτον, secundoprimum, which is literal and right. We translate it, the second Sabbath after the first, which is directly wrong; for it should have been the first Sabbath after the second day of the passover. On the 14th of Nisan, the passover was killed; the next day (the 15th) was the first day of the feast of unleavened bread; the day following (the 16th) the wave sheaf was offered, pursuant to the law, on the morrow after the Sabbath: Leviticus 23:11. The Sabbath, here, is not the seventh day of the week, but the first day of the feast of unleavened bread, let it fall on what day of the week it would. That and the seventh day of that feast were holy convocations, and therefore are here called Sabbaths. The morrow, therefore, after the Sabbath, i.e. the 16th day of Nisan, was the day in which the wave sheaf was offered; and after that seven Sabbaths were counted, and fifty days completed, and the fiftieth day inclusively was the day of pentecost.”
”ενσαββατω δευτεροπρωτω, In the first Sabbath after the second.” What does this mean? In answering this question, commentators are greatly divided. Dr. Whitby speaks thus: “After the first day of the passover, (which was a Sabbath, Exodus 12:16,) ye shall count unto you seven Sabbaths complete, Leviticus 23:15, reckoning that day for the first of the first week, which was therefore called δευτεροπρωτον, the first Sabbath from the second day of unleavened bread; (the 16th of the month;) the second was called δευτεροδευτερον, the second Sabbath from that day; and the third, δευτεροτριτον, the third Sabbath from the second day; and so on, till they came to the seventh Sabbath from that day, i.e. (and after) to the (50)th day, which was the day of pentecost. “
”The mention of the seven Sabbaths, to be numbered with relation to this second day, answers all that Grotius objects against this exposition.” WHITBY’S Notes.
”I think, with many commentators, that this transaction happened on the first Sabbath of the month Nisan; that is, after the second day of the feast of unleavened bread. We may well suppose that our Lord and his disciples were on their way from Jerusalem to Galilee, after having kept the passover.” Bp. NEWCOME.
”Now these Sabbaths, between the passover and pentecost, were called the first, second, Sabbaths after the second day of the feast of unleavened bread. This Sabbath, then, on which the disciples plucked the ears of corn, was the first Sabbath after that second day. Dr. Lightfoot, has demonstrably proved this to be the meaning of this σαββατονδευτεροπρωτον, (Hor. Hebraic. in locum,) and from him F. Lamy and Dr. Whitby have so explained it.”
”This Sabbath could not fall before the passover, because, till the second day of that feast, no Jew might eat either bread or parched corn, or green ears, Leviticus 23:14.) Had the disciples then gathered these ears of corn on any Sabbath before the passover, they would have broken two laws instead of one: and for the breach of these two laws they would infallibly have been accused; whereas now they broke only one, (plucking the ears of standing corn with one’s hand, being expressly allowed in the law, Deuteronomy 23:25,) which was that of the Sabbath. They took a liberty which the law gave them upon any other day; and our Lord vindicated them in what they did now, in the manner we see. Nor can this fact be laid after pentecost; because then the harvest was fully in. Within that interval, therefore, this Sabbath happened; and this is a plain determination of the time, according to the Jewish ways of reckoning, founded upon the text of Moses’s law itself.”
Dr. WOTTON’S Miscellaneous Discourses,
“The word δευτεροπρωτω, the second first, is omitted by BL, four others, Syriac, later Arabic, all the Persic, Coptic, AEthiopic, and three of the Itala. A note in the margin of the later Syriac says, This is not in all copies. The above MSS. read the verse thus: It came to pass, that he walked through the corn fields on a Sabbath day. I suppose they omitted the above word, because they found it difficult to fix the meaning, which has been too much the case in other instances.” [Quotes End]
‘The New Testament of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ with a Commentary and Critical Notes’ by Adam Clarke – published by Peter D. Meyers, New York, 1835.

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Sun Dec 25, 2011 12:48 am

Hello Stephen,
Regarding the observation of Firstfruits in relation to the seven sabbaths following;

Leviticus 23:11
“And he shall wave the sheaf before the Lord, to be accepted for you: on the next day (Nisan 16th) after the sabbath (Nisan 15th) the priest shall wave it.” KJV
Leviticus 23:15 “And ye shall count unto you from the morrow after the sabbath, from the day that ye brought the sheaf of the wave offering; seven sabbaths shall be complete:” KJV
Leviticus 23:16
“Even unto the morrow after the seventh sabbath shall ye number fifty days; and ye shall offer a new meal offering unto the Lord.” KJV
As I mentioned above, it really isn't good to base interpretations of Scripture on a sole translation, especially one that was plagiarised over 400 years ago.

Firstly it says "on the day after the Sabbath" (23:11). As there has been no "Sabbath" mentioned regarding the feast of unleavened bread, this can only mean the seventh day Sabbath that will always fall between the days of unleavened bread, as there are 7, and a Sabbath day will always fall in between these seven days. I go through all of this in my blog post on the subject.

Also, having the first of firstfruits always on the 16th of Abib/Nisan just doesn't work when it comes to Pentecost, as Lev 23:15-16 states: You shall count seven Sabbaths, starting from the day after the Sabbath, from the day that you brought the sheaf of the wave offering. You shall count fifty days to the day after the seventh Sabbath. Then you shall present a grain offering of new grain to Yahuweh.

If the 16th of Abib/Nisan fell on, let's say, a Wednesday, 50 days after this Wednesday ("from the day that you brought the sheaf of the wave offering") would be a Thursday, and not "the day after the seventh Sabbath (a.k.a, Sunday". If Firstfruits was on a Wednesday, then Pentecost, to coincide with it commencing on "the day after the seventh Sabbath/Sunday" would actually be fifty-three days, and not 50.

The only way to get from 50 days "from the day that you brought the sheaf of the wave offering" to "the day after the seventh Sabbath/Sunday" is for Firstfruits to always commence on a Sunday as well. I go over this in my post in this very thread here.
A clear account by Historian Flavius Josephus (AD~70) describes when the omer count (i.e. LEV 23:11) commenced in his book ‘The Antiquities of the Jews’ book 3 chapter 10 paragraph 5 line 250 follows; “But on the second day of unleavened bread, which is the sixteenth day of the month (Nisan), they partake of the fruits of the earth, for before that day they do not touch them.” William Whiston -1998 Thomas Nelson Publishers.
* Philo Judaeus (20 BC – AD 50) a Hellenistic Jewish philosopher is quoted; ” There is also a festival on the day of the pascal feast, which succeeds the first day, and this is named the sheaf, from what takes place on it, for the sheaf is brought to the alter as a first fruit…”
‘THE WORKS OF PHILO JUDAEUS’ by C.D. YONGE, Vol. III LONDON 1855
I really couldn't care less what Josephus or Philo said the tradition at that time was. The Messiah routinely exposed the Pharisees and the Sadducee's for the hypocrites they really were, especially when they "break the commandment of God for the sake of [their] tradition?" (Matt 15:3)
* The Greek Septuagint (LXX) Old Testament (~270 BC) clarifies when the Passover sheaf offering was offered in Leviticus 23: 11 ;
“and he (the priest) shall lift up the sheaf before the Lord, to be accepted for you. On the morrow (Nisan 16) of the first day (Nisan 15) the priest shall lift it up.” [End Quote] Sir Charles Lee Brenton Lancelot.
Published by Samuel Bagster & Sons, Ltd. London 1851.
As I have the Greek Septuagint in front of me, if you contest that "day" shouldn't be included to indicate "the first day of the week", then you should also contest Charles Brenton's addition of "day" to his translation here. It actually just says "on the morrow of the first..." first what, exactly? It does not say, as you have in brackets, "Nisan 15", it in fact doesn't say of which "first" it is referring to.

Lev 23:11, LXX: και ανοισει το δραγμα εναντι יהוה δεκτον υμιν, τη επαυριον της πρωτης ανοισει αυτο ο ιερευς.
Translation: ... and (και) he shall bring (ανοισει) the (το) sheaf (δραγμα) in the presence of (εναντι) Yahuweh (יהוה) to accept (δεκτον) you (υμιν), on the (τη) morrow (επαυριον) of the (της) first (πρωτης) shall wave (ανοισει) it (αυτο) the (ο) priest (ιερευς)...

If we were to look to Leviticus 23:15 in the Septuagint, we have: Και αριθμησετε υμεις απο της επαυριον του σαββατου, απο της ημερας, ης αν προσενεγκητε το δραγμα του επιθεματος...
Translation: And (Και) shall count (αριθμησετε) you all (υμεις), starting from (απο) the (της) morrow (επαυριον) of the (του) Sabbath (σαββατου), from (απο) the (της) day (ημερας) which (ης αν) you all brought (προσενεγκητε) the (το) sheaf (δραγμα) of the (του) offering (επιθεματος)...

This again shows that Firstfruits, "the day which you all brought the sheaf" was "the morrow of the Sabbath", aka "the day after the Sabbath".
* Note – The practice of the ‘sheaf offering’ dedication was observed regardless of whatever weekday the 16th of Nisan fell upon for each particular year. Thus being the observation by Jews from the earliest days up through the middle ages right into modern times.
All Jews? In Word Biblical Commentary: Leviticus John Hartley states that "The second position is that שׁבת is the Sabbath falling during the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Three groups, the Boethusians, the Samaritans, and the Karaites, all who very likely had priestly origins, follow this tradition (van Goudoever, 23)."

From what I can see in Scripture, these three groups have got it right. The day of the "sheaf offering" is "the day after the Sabbath", not "the 16th of Nisan/Abib". As far as I'm concerned, if Yahuweh had wanted to say Firstfruits was always on the 16th of Abib/Nisan, then He would've actually stated the date. He does so for Passover, Unleavened bread, Trumpets, Atonement, and Tabernacles; yet for firstfruits and Pentecost, He doesn't give a specific date on the calendar. If He did want them to fall on a specific date, then he could quite easily've done so, especially as if you count 50 days from the 16th of Nisan, you shall always come to the same date 50 days later each and every year
To support this chronological arrangement overall, a widely overlooked verse at St. Luke 6:1 strongly underlies a principle that Jews were in recognition of a series of Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost thus reading;
“And it came to pass on the second Sabbath after the first, that he went through the cornfields and his disciples plucked the ears of corn and did eat rubbing them in their hands.” KJV.
* This verse has created much debate amongst bible commentators as to what the ‘second Sabbath after the first’ could mean. In ‘Adam Clarke’s Bible Commentary’ we receive an analysis from him and some other various Commentators giving their explanations for the meaning behind the Luke 6:1 passage; [Quotes Begin]
“The Vulgar Latin renders δευτεροπρωτον, secundoprimum, which is literal and right. We translate it, the second Sabbath after the first, which is directly wrong; for it should have been the first Sabbath after the second day of the passover.

On the 14th of Nisan, the passover was killed; the next day (the 15th) was the first day of the feast of unleavened bread; the day following (the 16th) the wave sheaf was offered, pursuant to the law, on the morrow after the Sabbath: Leviticus 23:11. The Sabbath, here, is not the seventh day of the week, but the first day of the feast of unleavened bread, let it fall on what day of the week it would. That and the seventh day of that feast were holy convocations, and therefore are here called Sabbaths. The morrow, therefore, after the Sabbath, i.e. the 16th day of Nisan, was the day in which the wave sheaf was offered; and after that seven Sabbaths were counted, and fifty days completed, and the fiftieth day inclusively was the day of pentecost.”
”ενσαββατω δευτεροπρωτω, In the first Sabbath after the second.” What does this mean? In answering this question, commentators are greatly divided. Dr. Whitby speaks thus: “After the first day of the passover, (which was a Sabbath, Exodus 12:16,) ye shall count unto you seven Sabbaths complete, Leviticus 23:15, reckoning that day for the first of the first week, which was therefore called δευτεροπρωτον, the first Sabbath from the second day of unleavened bread; (the 16th of the month;) the second was called δευτεροδευτερον, the second Sabbath from that day; and the third, δευτεροτριτον, the third Sabbath from the second day; and so on, till they came to the seventh Sabbath from that day, i.e. (and after) to the (50)th day, which was the day of pentecost. “
”The mention of the seven Sabbaths, to be numbered with relation to this second day, answers all that Grotius objects against this exposition.” WHITBY’S Notes.
”I think, with many commentators, that this transaction happened on the first Sabbath of the month Nisan; that is, after the second day of the feast of unleavened bread. We may well suppose that our Lord and his disciples were on their way from Jerusalem to Galilee, after having kept the passover.” Bp. NEWCOME.
”Now these Sabbaths, between the passover and pentecost, were called the first, second, Sabbaths after the second day of the feast of unleavened bread. This Sabbath, then, on which the disciples plucked the ears of corn, was the first Sabbath after that second day. Dr. Lightfoot, has demonstrably proved this to be the meaning of this σαββατονδευτεροπρωτον, (Hor. Hebraic. in locum,) and from him F. Lamy and Dr. Whitby have so explained it.”
”This Sabbath could not fall before the passover, because, till the second day of that feast, no Jew might eat either bread or parched corn, or green ears, Leviticus 23:14.) Had the disciples then gathered these ears of corn on any Sabbath before the passover, they would have broken two laws instead of one: and for the breach of these two laws they would infallibly have been accused; whereas now they broke only one, (plucking the ears of standing corn with one’s hand, being expressly allowed in the law, Deuteronomy 23:25,) which was that of the Sabbath. They took a liberty which the law gave them upon any other day; and our Lord vindicated them in what they did now, in the manner we see. Nor can this fact be laid after pentecost; because then the harvest was fully in. Within that interval, therefore, this Sabbath happened; and this is a plain determination of the time, according to the Jewish ways of reckoning, founded upon the text of Moses’s law itself.”
Dr. WOTTON’S Miscellaneous Discourses,
“The word δευτεροπρωτω, the second first, is omitted by BL, four others, Syriac, later Arabic, all the Persic, Coptic, AEthiopic, and three of the Itala. A note in the margin of the later Syriac says, This is not in all copies. The above MSS. read the verse thus: It came to pass, that he walked through the corn fields on a Sabbath day. I suppose they omitted the above word, because they found it difficult to fix the meaning, which has been too much the case in other instances.” [Quotes End]
‘The New Testament of Our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ with a Commentary and Critical Notes’ by Adam Clarke – published by Peter D. Meyers, New York, 1835.

-William
I'm staring at Papyrus 75 and Papyrus 4, the two oldest manuscripts to contain Luke 6:1 (P4 = 150-175 CE; P75 = 150-200 CE), and I do not see this δευτεροπρωτον whatsoever. It therefore must be a much later addition to the text, so this entire section is moot.

This is why you shouldn't use a 400 year old plagiarised translation based on 12th Century CE only manuscripts to try and base ones theology on - it's going to be wrong.

I also see that most of your quotes are from books that are over 150 years old. Scholarship has moved on a lot since the 1850's.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Tue Dec 27, 2011 2:52 am

Hello Stephen,
Here's an interesting article that appears to be more then one-sided. I hope you enjoy it.
Counting the Omer
By Hillel ben David (Greg Killian)
http://www.betemunah.org/omer.html" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;

- William 8-)

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Wed Dec 28, 2011 5:22 pm

The article seemed to be more or less just completely one sided, especially as it quotes from the Mishnah and Talmud.

In fact, checking the rest of the website, the fact that it has an article stating that the ORAL LAW is necessary, I just cannot accept whatever it says as an authority on this subject, especially if they're going to state that the Rabbi and Pharisaical brain farts are worthy of something other than criticism.

The whole website seems like some sort of Pharisaical/Messianic concoction, which, with respect to the extremely high degree of diversity between the congregations and beliefs of those who call themselves Messianic Jews, it is never good to look to the sayings of the Pharisees for what's best to do when it comes to the words of Scripture.

And the fact that the article also posted the Luke 6:1 thing that you have above as a genuine reading of Luke's, only further proves that the article's wrong.

Karaite-korner has a good article on this subject too, and they, like me, see that Scripture shows that Firstfruits and Pentecost always happen on a Sunday - http://www.karaite-korner.org/shavuot.shtml" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Thu Dec 29, 2011 5:32 am

Hello Stephen,
I read that article from the Karaite Korner and don’t reason with their logic where it states the first fruits offering took place on Nisan 15th being the morrow of the Passover sacrifice occurring on Nisan 14th.
The correct logic should be that the first fruits offering was on Nisan 16th as the morrow following the Passover sacrifice being on Nisan 15th. For example - consider these quotes in the KJV;

(Edited and the verses referenced - I don't have much bandwidth during the month, and having everyone load this each time they come up is silly, especially as you can just link to them on Biblegateway.com - Stephen)

Exodus 12:5-51 @ Biblegateway, KJV

Numbers 33:3 And they departed from Rameses in the first month, on the fifteenth day of the first month; on the morrow after the passover (Nisan 14) the children of Israel went out with an high hand in the sight of all the Egyptians.

• The Passover lambs were killed in an act of ceremonial uncleanness on the late afternoon of Nisan 14th where gatherings of Pilgrims occurred. E.g. JHN 13:1

• The actual Passover sacrifice in ceremonial cleanness was observed and commemorated by Jews on the night of Nisan 15th being the first day of unleavened bread.

• These events were planned, kept (Nisan 15) and partaken by Jesus with His disciples when they fulfilled the Passover seder ceremony on the ‘πρωτη ημερα των αζυμων’ = ‘first day of unleaveneds (bread)’ as described from Matthew 26:17,20,21; Mark 14:12,17,18; Luke 22:7,14 giving reference to the night that commemorated the Israelite forefather’s former departure to freedom from slavery in Egypt.

• St Paul’s wonderful statement; “Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For Christ are Passover is sacrificed for us: Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven (Nisan 14), neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread (Nisan 15-21) of sincerity and truth.”

• Our Lord was sacrificed when the (unleavened) bread and wine representing His body and blood was being consumed on the first night (Nisan 15) of the Passover Seder.

- William

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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby Swalchy » Thu Dec 29, 2011 2:37 pm

That really wasn't the section of the Karaite article I was pointing to, but to the fact that they too agree that "the morrow after the Sabbath" is a reference to Sunday, no matter the date of Abib/Nisan it falls on.

I'm sure if you want you can email the guys at Karaite-Korner for a explanation of why they think that concerning the Joshua verse, but it really isn't pertinent to this discussion.

Also, you don't seem to take your own statements into account.

You note that Unleavened Bread/Passover was a combined festival "period [that] lasted for 8 days" and quoted Luke 22:1 to point this out: Now the Feast of Unleavened Bread drew near, which is called the Passover.

The day and date that is mentioned in Matthew 26:17,20,21; Mark 14:12,17,18; Luke 22:7,14 is the start of Nisan/Abib 14th, in the evening when they actually have the Passover, as the Messiah makes explicit in Luke 22:15. Matthew and Mark never refer to the 8 day festival as "Passover" but as "Unleavened Bread"; that was their way of designating the whole thing. John on the other hand only ever calls it "Passover", for the Greek for unleavened - αζυμος - never appears in John's eyewitness account.

So the betrayal happened on the start of the 14th of Nisan/Abib, which was a Thursday night/start of Friday day in our way of reckoning the days. The crucifixion then soon followed, happening, as all the eyewitnesses declare, on the παρασκευη/Friday, which was also the 14th of Nisan/Abib. Just before the end of παρασκευη, the Messiah's body was placed in a newly cut tomb by Joseph of Arimathea and Nicodemus (Matt 27:59-60; Mark 15:46; Luke 23:53; John 19:39-42), as the women watched (Matt 27:61; Mark 15:47; Luke 23:55). This happened before the seventh-day Sabbath. During the seventh-day Sabbath the Messiah was dead and in the tomb of the 15th of Nisan/Abib. Then on the 16th of Nisan/Abib, the day after the seventh-day Sabbath "on One of Sabbaths/Weeks", the women came to the tomb, and found it empty, because the Messiah had risen "on the third day".

So whilst it certainly happened in three consecutive days here, it doesn't every year. But this just shows how good Yahuweh is at planning His events to happen on time, and when He says they will.

Again, the eyewitness accounts are all in agreement that the Messiah died on a Friday, was dead during the seventh-day Sabbath, and then rose again the following day, on "One of Sabbaths/Weeks". Regarding this, nothing has been brought forth that shows the explanation to be in the wrong, and that is essentially it.
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Re: Acts 20:7: The First Day of the Week, or a Sabbath?

Postby WilliamPriebe » Fri Dec 30, 2011 4:34 pm

Leviticus 23:14 And ye shall eat neither (the new grains) bread, nor parched corn, nor green ears, until the selfsame day that ye have brought an (first fruits) offering unto your God: it shall be a statute for ever throughout your generations in all your dwellings.

Deuteronomy 16:3 Thou shalt eat no leavened bread with it; seven days (Nisan 15. 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21) shalt thou eat unleavened bread therewith…

Deuteronomy 16:8 Six days (16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21) thou shalt eat (the new grain) unleavened bread…

On Nisan 15 Jews ate unleavened bread (barely loaf) made from the ‘old grain’. Beginning from Nisan 16–Nisan 21.
Jews ate unleavened bread (barely loaf) from the ‘new grain’ for six days. This way works consistently when the first fruits offering was presented at the beginning of Nisan 16th regardless to whatever week day it fell upon for each particular year.

If the weekly Sabbath landed on a Nisan 19, however, and the First fruits offering followed on Nisan 20 on a particular year, Jews would have ate unleavened bread (barley loaf) from the ‘old grain’ for five days on Nisan 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 and unleavened bread (barely loaf) from the ‘new grain’ for two days being Nisan 20 and Nisan 21. The numbers of days for the eating of unleavened bread from the old produce or the new produce would vary differently year after year if the first fruits offering were modelled after the weekly Sabbath occurring with in the Passover period.

Deuteronomy 16:3 says ‘seven days’ and 16:8 says’ six days’ when unleavened bread was to be eaten. The only reconciliation here for each consecutive year was that no new grain could be eaten until after the ‘first fruits offering was presented on the beginning of Nisan 16.
If the first fruits offering occurred on a weekly Sabbath the offering would take precedence over the Sabbath. The probability of the ‘Sheaf Offering Dedication’ (Abib/Nisan 16th) occurring on a Sabbath day was very tangible as revealed from within the AD 300 rabbinical writings such as the Tosefta (tractrate 10:23). Please See;
http://books.google.com/books?id=HjosAA ... =html&cd=9" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;
http://books.google.com/books?id=oOOJVr ... utput=html" onclick="window.open(this.href);return false;

* Consequently Pentecost (Shavout) would arrive 50 days later on the weekly Sabbath of Sivan 6 in occasional years.


Luke 22:14 And when the hour was come, he sat down, and the twelve apostles with him.
* The word ‘hour’ here is in reference to the time of day near the end of Nisan 14 when Jews normally gathered for the beginning of Passover. No where in the entire bible is any significance given specifically to an ‘hour’ on Nisan 13 having any merit to the period of Passover.

* Many Traditionalists perceive the ‘Last Supper’ occurring on the nightly beginning of Nisan 14. If this had been the case, the meal then, would have been an anticipatory meal eaten 24 hours ahead of the actual designated time. That would have been a meal eaten with leavened bread puffed up with yeast and haughtiness that Saul warned us about. Our Lord would have used ‘unleavened bread’ only at the designated time on the beginning of Nisan 15 to represent His body which was pure and clean of any sin or wrong doing. Subsequently, a resurrection occurring on Nisan 16 was highly unlikely where the prelude of Passion events must have occurred in synchronization to Hebrew law.

- William


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